EMT Practice Questions

The correct answers are A, C, and D because NREMT-aligned EMT communication guidance emphasizes being honest with the patient , using the patient’s proper name , and making and keeping eye contact as key interpersonal communication behaviors that show respect and concern. Official EMT refresher curriculum specifically lists: “Be honest with the patient,” “Use the patient’s proper name,” and “Make and keep eye contact with the patient.” It also says to use language the patient can understand , which supports avoiding unnecessary medical jargon. ( EMS.gov )

To rapidly determine a pediatric patient’s condition, NREMT emphasizes the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT), which allows EMTs to form a quick clinical impression without hands-on assessment. The PAT consists of appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to skin.

Option F (Response to environment) evaluates appearance, including interaction, awareness, and mental status—critical in a confused child.

Option E (Accessory muscle use) assesses work of breathing, identifying respiratory compromise through visible effort such as retractions or nasal flaring.

Option A (Pallor) reflects circulation to skin, helping identify poor perfusion or shock.

Options B, C, and D are part of more detailed assessments but are not part of the rapid initial determination emphasized by NREMT.

Using the PAT allows EMTs to quickly identify life-threatening problems and prioritize care.

The correct answers are

A.  

E.  

Key Concept: Cardiac Arrest in Late Pregnancy

At ≥20 weeks gestation (30 weeks in this case):

The enlarged uterus compresses the inferior vena cava (IVC) when the patient is supine

This reduces venous return and cardiac output, worsening resuscitation effectiveness

Why A is correct (Left uterine displacement):

The uterus should be manually displaced to the left side

This relieves pressure on the IVC and improves circulation during CPR

NREMT/AHA-aligned guidance states:

“Manual left uterine displacement should be performed in pregnant patients during resuscitation.”

Why E is correct (Compression depth):

CPR in pregnant patients follows standard adult CPR guidelines

Compression depth should be at least 2 inches (5 cm)

“Perform high-quality chest compressions at a depth of at least 2 inches.”

Why the other options are incorrect:

B.  

“Defibrillation should not be withheld in pregnant patients.”

C.  

D.  

Exact Extracts (NREMT/AHA-aligned references):

“Perform manual uterine displacement in late pregnancy during CPR.”

“Use standard CPR compression depth and rate.”

“Defibrillation is safe in pregnancy and should not be delayed.”

Clinical Priority Summary:

In a pregnant cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should perform standard high-quality CPR while relieving uterine pressure on major vessels, making A and E the correct answers.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):

When a previously choking adult becomes unresponsive, NREMT guidelines require the EMT to immediately begin the cardiac arrest sequence.

Option A (Check for a pulse) is correct because determining pulselessness directs the next intervention.

Option B (Begin chest compressions) is correct because chest compressions are initiated if the patient is pulseless and unresponsive. Compressions may also help dislodge the foreign body.

Option C is incorrect because the airway is checked only after compressions begin and ventilations are attempted.

Option D is incorrect because ventilations are attempted after compressions, with airway checks between cycles.

Option E is inappropriate for an unresponsive adult.

NREMT emphasizes following BLS algorithms precisely for airway obstruction leading to unresponsiveness.

CPAP works by delivering continuous positive pressure to keep alveoli open and improve oxygenation. However, complications include:

Hypotension: Due to reduced venous return and cardiac preload

Feeling of suffocation: Common psychological reaction to a tight-fitting mask and forced airflow

It is used to treat, not cause, pulmonary edema. It does not induce bronchospasm or myocardial infarction.

The correct answers related to increased epinephrine (adrenergic response) are

C.  

D.  

A.  

Understanding the concept:

Hypoglycemia produces two categories of symptoms:

These occur due to activation of the sympathetic nervous system:

Diaphoresis (sweating)

Tachycardia

Anxiety, tremors, pallor

These include:

Drowsiness

Disorientation

Unresponsiveness

Why the correct answers are:

C.  

D.  

A.  

Why the other options are incorrect:

B.  

E.  

F.  

Exact Extracts:

“Early hypoglycemia triggers epinephrine release causing sweating and tachycardia.”

“Adrenergic symptoms include diaphoresis, tachycardia, and anxiety.”

“Neuroglycopenic symptoms include confusion, drowsiness, and unresponsiveness.”