200-301 Practice Question and Answers

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

Where does wireless authentication happen?

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site

B.  

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 v2ia R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

Refer to Exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSP

F.  

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?

What is a benefit of VRRP?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router

D.  

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

Refer to the exhibit.

What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

What is the put method within HTTP?

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

Refer to the exhibit.

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 v2ia R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

B)

C)

D)

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

What is the purpose of an SSID?

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

Refer to Exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached P

C.  

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site

B.  

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the prefix lengths from the left onto the corresponding prefixes on the right Not all prefixes are used

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Which is a fact related to FTP?

What is the function of a controller in a software-defined network?

Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to confère router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?

Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?