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156-215.81 Practice Exam Questions and Answers

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20

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Total Questions : 400

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Question # 1

In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

Options:

A.  

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.

B.  

A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.

C.  

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.

D.  

A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

Discussion 0
Question # 2

Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Options:

A.  

Microsoft Publisher

B.  

JSON

C.  

Microsoft Word

D.  

RC4 Encryption

Discussion 0
Question # 3

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.  

cpm status

B.  

api restart

C.  

api status

D.  

show api status

Discussion 0
Question # 4

The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances. How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

Options:

A.  

The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.

B.  

No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.

C.  

Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.

D.  

The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.

Discussion 0
Question # 5

The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.  

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

B.  

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

C.  

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

D.  

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Discussion 0
Question # 6

Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

Options:

A.  

Object Browser

B.  

Object Editor

C.  

Object Navigator

D.  

Object Explorer

Discussion 0
Question # 7

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.  

Full

B.  

Custom

C.  

Complete

D.  

Light

Discussion 0
Question # 8

What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

Options:

A.  

Check Point INSPECT Engine

B.  

Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

C.  

Check Point Update Engine

D.  

Check Point Upgrade Installation Service

Discussion 0
Question # 9

John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing r R77.30 Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John’s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must John do?

Options:

A.  

Logout of the session

B.  

File > Save

C.  

Install database

D.  

Publish the session

Discussion 0
Question # 10

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.  

restore_backup

B.  

import backup

C.  

cp_merge

D.  

migrate import

Discussion 0
Question # 11

Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Options:

A.  

Connection Cache

B.  

State Cache

C.  

State Table

D.  

Network Table

Discussion 0
Question # 12

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Options:

A.  

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

B.  

There is Load Sharing solution set up

C.  

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

D.  

There is High Availability solution set up

Discussion 0
Question # 13

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

Options:

A.  

Tracking

B.  

Log

C.  

None

D.  

Alert

Discussion 0
Question # 14

Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

Options:

A.  

the user connects and authenticates

B.  

office mode is initiated

C.  

the user requests a connection

D.  

the user connects

Discussion 0
Question # 15

Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Options:

A.  

fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates

B.  

fwaccel stat

C.  

fwaccel stats

D.  

fw ctl templates –d

Discussion 0
Question # 16

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Options:

A.  

All-in-one (stand-alone)

B.  

Log server

C.  

SmartEvent

D.  

Multi-domain management server

Discussion 0
Question # 17

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Options:

A.  

The firewall topologies

B.  

NAT Rules

C.  

The Rule Base

D.  

The VPN Domains

Discussion 0
Question # 18

When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

Options:

A.  

Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

B.  

Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers

C.  

R81.10 does not support Layers

D.  

Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

Discussion 0
Question # 19

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.  

NAT

B.  

Firewall

C.  

Global Properties

D.  

Object Explorer

Discussion 0
Question # 20

What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.  

SmartUpdate installation

B.  

DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

C.  

USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

D.  

Cloud based installation

Discussion 0
Question # 21

Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

Options:

A.  

Remote Access

B.  

Cloud IdP (Identity Provider)

C.  

Active Directory Query

D.  

RADIUS

Discussion 0
Question # 22

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

Options:

A.  

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.  

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.  

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.  

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

Discussion 0
Question # 23

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

Question # 23

Options:

A.  

Those rules have been published in the current session.

B.  

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

C.  

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

D.  

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

Discussion 0
Question # 24

True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

Options:

A.  

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

B.  

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

C.  

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

D.  

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

Discussion 0
Question # 25

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

Options:

A.  

Cloud/data Center

B.  

perimeter

C.  

Sandbox

D.  

Guest Network

Discussion 0
Question # 26

Which tool allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS?

Options:

A.  

CPASE - Check Point Automatic Service Engine

B.  

CPAUE - Check Point Automatic Update Engine

C.  

CPDAS - Check Point Deployment Agent Service

D.  

CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

Discussion 0
Question # 27

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

Options:

A.  

Security Gateway

B.  

Security Gateway container

C.  

Management server

D.  

Management container

Discussion 0
Question # 28

Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

Options:

A.  

AD Query

B.  

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

C.  

Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication

D.  

RADIUS and Account Logon

Discussion 0
Question # 29

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

Options:

A.  

System backup

B.  

Save Configuration

C.  

Migrate

D.  

snapshot

Discussion 0
Question # 30

Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses_____to communicate with the gateway

Options:

A.  

UDP

B.  

CCP

C.  

TDP

D.  

HTTP

Discussion 0
Question # 31

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.  

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.  

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.  

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.  

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

Discussion 0
Question # 32

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.  

Revisions

B.  

Gateway installations

C.  

Installation history

D.  

Gateway history

Discussion 0
Question # 33

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.  

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.  

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.  

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.  

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

Discussion 0
Question # 34

From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Options:

A.  

Verify a Security Policy

B.  

Open a terminal shell

C.  

Add a static route

D.  

View Security Management GUI Clients

Discussion 0
Question # 35

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

Options:

A.  

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.  

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.  

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.  

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

Discussion 0
Question # 36

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Options:

A.  

cpconfig

B.  

Management Command Line

C.  

SmartConsole

D.  

SmartUpdate

Discussion 0
Question # 37

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.  

Incoming

B.  

Internal

C.  

External

D.  

Outgoing

Discussion 0
Question # 38

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.  

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

B.  

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

C.  

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

D.  

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Discussion 0
Question # 39

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

Options:

A.  

cphaprob state

B.  

cphaprob status

C.  

cphaprob

D.  

cluster state

Discussion 0
Question # 40

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.  

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

B.  

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

C.  

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

D.  

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

Discussion 0
Question # 41

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

Options:

A.  

Client machine IP address.

B.  

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.  

Log server IP address.

D.  

Gateway proxy IP address.

Discussion 0
Question # 42

Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.

Question # 42

What is the possible explanation for this?

Options:

A.  

DNS Rule is using one of the new feature of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock icon to let other administrators know it is important.

B.  

Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.

C.  

DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.

D.  

This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.

Discussion 0
Question # 43

What is a role of Publishing?

Options:

A.  

The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public

B.  

The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways

C.  

The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways

D.  

Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base

Discussion 0
Question # 44

The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

Options:

A.  

Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.

B.  

When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

C.  

Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).

D.  

When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.

Discussion 0
Question # 45

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.  

Accounting

B.  

Suppression

C.  

Accounting/Suppression

D.  

Accounting/Extended

Discussion 0
Question # 46

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.  

2

B.  

7

C.  

6

D.  

4

Discussion 0
Question # 47

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.  

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.  

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

D.  

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

Discussion 0
Question # 48

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

Options:

A.  

One

B.  

Three

C.  

Two

D.  

Infinite

Discussion 0
Question # 49

When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.  

Distributed

B.  

Standalone

C.  

Bridge

Discussion 0
Question # 50

When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

Options:

A.  

Log, send snmp trap, email

B.  

Drop packet, alert, none

C.  

Log, alert, none

D.  

Log, allow packets, email

Discussion 0
Question # 51

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

Options:

A.  

Application database

B.  

AppWiki

C.  

Application-Forensic Database

D.  

Application Library

Discussion 0
Question # 52

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

Options:

A.  

URL Filtering and Network

B.  

Network and Threat Prevention

C.  

Application Control and URL Filtering

D.  

Network and Application Control

Discussion 0
Question # 53

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

Options:

A.  

sysdown

B.  

exit

C.  

halt

D.  

shut-down

Discussion 0
Question # 54

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.  

Any size

B.  

Less than 20GB

C.  

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

D.  

At least 20GB

Discussion 0
Question # 55

What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.  

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.  

Smart Console, Standalone, and Security Management

C.  

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

D.  

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

Discussion 0
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