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156-315.81 Practice Exam Questions and Answers

Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20

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Total Questions : 624

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Question # 1

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

Options:

A.  

Matching a log against each event definition

B.  

Create an event candidate

C.  

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.  

Matching a log against global exclusions

Discussion 0
Question # 2

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

Options:

A.  

cpwd

B.  

fwd

C.  

cpd

D.  

fwm

Discussion 0
Question # 3

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.  

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.  

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.  

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.  

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Discussion 0
Question # 4

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.  

No, only one can be connected

B.  

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.  

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.  

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

Discussion 0
Question # 5

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

Options:

A.  

19090,22

B.  

19190,22

C.  

18190,80

D.  

19009,443

Discussion 0
Question # 6

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.  

Monitoring the status of processes.

B.  

Sending and receiving logs.

C.  

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server.

D.  

Generating and modifying certificates.

Discussion 0
Question # 7

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

Options:

A.  

assign privileges to users.

B.  

edit the home directory of the user.

C.  

add users to your Gaia system.

D.  

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

Discussion 0
Question # 8

Using fw monitor you see the following inspection point notion E and i what does that mean?

Options:

A.  

E shows the packet before the VPN encryption, i after the inbound firewall VM

B.  

E shows the packet reaching the external interface, i leaving the internal interface

C.  

E shows the packet after the VPN encryption, i before the inbound firewall VM

D.  

E shows the packet leaving the external interface, i reaching the internal interface

Discussion 0
Question # 9

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R81.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

Options:

A.  

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.  

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

C.  

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

D.  

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Discussion 0
Question # 10

To optimize Rule Base efficiency, the most hit rules should be where?

Options:

A.  

Removed from the Rule Base.

B.  

Towards the middle of the Rule Base.

C.  

Towards the top of the Rule Base.

D.  

Towards the bottom of the Rule Base.

Discussion 0
Question # 11

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing a customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.  

cpv

B.  

cpinfo

C.  

migrate export

D.  

sysinfo

Discussion 0
Question # 12

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.  

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

B.  

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust.

C.  

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust.

D.  

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

Discussion 0
Question # 13

What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

Options:

A.  

Performs OS-level sandboxing for SandBlast Cloud architecture

B.  

Ensure the Check Point SandBlast services is running on the end user’s system

C.  

If malware enters an end user’s system, the SandBlast Agent prevents the malware from spreading with the network

D.  

Clean up email sent with malicious attachments

Discussion 0
Question # 14

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.  

Lagging

B.  

Synchronized

C.  

Never been synchronized

D.  

Collision

Discussion 0
Question # 15

Main Mode in IKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

Options:

A.  

4

B.  

depends on the make of the peer gateway

C.  

3

D.  

6

Discussion 0
Question # 16

Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?

Options:

A.  

Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files

B.  

cp.macro

C.  

Contract file (.xml)

D.  

license File (.lic)

Discussion 0
Question # 17

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.  

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.  

Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.  

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.  

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

Discussion 0
Question # 18

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Options:

A.  

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.  

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.  

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.  

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

Discussion 0
Question # 19

In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?

Options:

A.  

TXT, XML and CSV

B.  

PDF and TXT

C.  

PDF, HTML, and XML

D.  

PDF and HTML

Discussion 0
Question # 20

What is the command switch to specify the Gaia API context?

Options:

A.  

You have to specify it in the YAML file api.yml which is located underneath the /etc. directory of the security management server

B.  

You have to change to the zsh-Shell which defaults to the Gaia API context.

C.  

No need to specify a context, since it defaults to the Gaia API context.

D.  

mgmt_cli --context gaia_api

Discussion 0
Question # 21

Which command would you use to set the network interfaces’ affinity in Manual mode?

Options:

A.  

sim affinity -m

B.  

sim affinity -l

C.  

sim affinity -a

D.  

sim affinity -s

Discussion 0
Question # 22

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.  

Anti-virus

B.  

IPS

C.  

Threat Emulation

D.  

Application Control and URL Filtering

Discussion 0
Question # 23

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.  

Accounting

B.  

Suppression

C.  

Accounting/Suppression

D.  

Accounting/Extended

Discussion 0
Question # 24

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.  

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.  

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.  

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.  

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Discussion 0
Question # 25

You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R81.20. What tool could you use in this process?

Options:

A.  

migrate export

B.  

upgrade_tools verify

C.  

pre_upgrade_verifier

D.  

migrate import

Discussion 0
Question # 26

You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

Options:

A.  

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.  

cpconfig; reboot required

C.  

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.  

cpconfig; reboot not required

Discussion 0
Question # 27

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

Options:

A.  

fwm

B.  

cpmd

C.  

cpm

D.  

cpd

Discussion 0
Question # 28

Fill in the blank: The “fw monitor” tool can be best used to troubleshoot ____________________.

Options:

A.  

AV issues

B.  

VPN errors

C.  

Network traffic issues

D.  

Authentication issues

Discussion 0
Question # 29

GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:

Options:

A.  

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SFTP access to Internet

B.  

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have access to Internet.

C.  

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SSH access to Internet.

D.  

The desired CPUSE package is ONLY available in the Check Point CLOU

D.  

Discussion 0
Question # 30

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.  

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.  

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.  

Account Logon

D.  

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Discussion 0
Question # 31

The ____ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.  

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.  

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.  

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.  

Next Generation Firewall

Discussion 0
Question # 32

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.  

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.  

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.  

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.  

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

Discussion 0
Question # 33

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

Options:

A.  

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B.  

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.  

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.  

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

Discussion 0
Question # 34

Which application should you use to install a contract file?

Options:

A.  

SmartView Monitor

B.  

WebUI

C.  

SmartUpdate

D.  

SmartProvisioning

Discussion 0
Question # 35

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.  

INSPECT Engine

B.  

Stateful Inspection

C.  

Packet Filtering

D.  

Application Layer Firewall

Discussion 0
Question # 36

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.  

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.  

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.  

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.  

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Discussion 0
Question # 37

Office mode means that:

Options:

A.  

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.  

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.  

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.  

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

Discussion 0
Question # 38

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

Options:

A.  

Application Dictionary

B.  

AppWiki

C.  

Application Library

D.  

CPApp

Discussion 0
Question # 39

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

Options:

A.  

remove database lock

B.  

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.  

override database lock

D.  

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

Discussion 0
Question # 40

Firewall polices must be configured to accept VRRP packets on the GAiA platform if it Firewall software. The Multicast destination assigned by the internet Assigned Number Authority (IANA) for VRRP is:

Options:

A.  

224.0.0.18

B.  

224 00 5

C.  

224.0.0.102

D.  

224.0.0.22

Discussion 0
Question # 41

What is the command to show SecureXL status?

Options:

A.  

fwaccel status

B.  

fwaccel stats -m

C.  

fwaccel -s

D.  

fwaccel stat

Discussion 0
Question # 42

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from A

D.  

Options:

A.  

WMI

B.  

Eventvwr

C.  

XML

D.  

Services.msc

Discussion 0
Question # 43

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Options:

A.  

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.  

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.  

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.  

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

Discussion 0
Question # 44

Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

Options:

A.  

To satellites through center only.

B.  

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets.

C.  

To center and to other satellites through center.

D.  

To center only.

Discussion 0
Question # 45

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

Options:

A.  

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.  

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.  

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.  

Change internal CA via cpconfig

Discussion 0
Question # 46

How does the Anti-Virus feature of the Threat Prevention policy block traffic from infected websites?

Options:

A.  

By dropping traffic from websites identified through ThreatCloud Verification and URL Caching

B.  

By dropping traffic that is not proven to be from clean websites in the URL Filtering blade

C.  

By allowing traffic from websites that are known to run Antivirus Software on servers regularly

D.  

By matching logs against ThreatCloud information about the reputation of the website

Discussion 0
Question # 47

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

Options:

A.  

Admin and Default

B.  

Expert and Clish

C.  

Control and Monitor

D.  

Admin and Monitor

Discussion 0
Question # 48

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Question # 48

Options:

A.  

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.  

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.  

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.  

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Discussion 0
Question # 49

When deploying SandBlast, how would a Threat Emulation appliance benefit from the integration of ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.  

ThreatCloud is a database-related application which is located on-premise to preserve privacy of company-related data

B.  

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the CheckPoint customers to form a virtual cloud consisting of a combination of all on-premise private cloud environments

C.  

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for Check Point customers to benefit from VMWare ESXi infrastructure which supports the Threat Emulation Appliances as virtual machines in the EMC Cloud

D.  

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the Check Point customers to share information about malicious and benign files that all of the customers can benefit from as it makes emulation of known files unnecessary

Discussion 0
Question # 50

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.  

cpm status

B.  

api restart

C.  

api status

D.  

show api status

Discussion 0
Question # 51

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.  

fwm compile

B.  

fwm load

C.  

fwm fetch

D.  

fwm install

Discussion 0
Question # 52

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.  

Slow path

B.  

Firewall path

C.  

Medium path

D.  

Accelerated path

Discussion 0
Question # 53

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Options:

A.  

Identity Awareness

B.  

Data Loss Prevention

C.  

URL Filtering

D.  

Application Control

Discussion 0
Question # 54

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_”cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

Options:

A.  

S

B.  

W

C.  

C

D.  

Space bar

Discussion 0
Question # 55

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

Options:

A.  

IKE Phase 1

B.  

IPSEC Phase 2

C.  

IPSEC Phase 1

D.  

IKE Phase 2

Discussion 0
Question # 56

What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

Options:

A.  

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

B.  

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

C.  

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

D.  

Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL

Discussion 0
Question # 57

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

Options:

A.  

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.  

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.  

cphaprob-a if

D.  

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

Discussion 0
Question # 58

Fill in the blank. Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is ________ .

Options:

A.  

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.  

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.  

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.  

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Discussion 0
Question # 59

What is true of the API server on R81.20?

Options:

A.  

By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.

B.  

By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.

C.  

By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).

D.  

By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand-alone servers with 8GB of RAM (or more).

Discussion 0
Question # 60

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

Options:

A.  

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.  

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.  

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.  

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

Discussion 0
Question # 61

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:

Options:

A.  

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.  

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

C.  

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

D.  

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

Discussion 0
Question # 62

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.  

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.  

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.  

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.  

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

Discussion 0
Question # 63

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

Options:

A.  

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.  

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.  

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.  

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

Discussion 0
Question # 64

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

Options:

A.  

User Directory

B.  

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.  

Captive Portal

D.  

UserCheck

Discussion 0
Question # 65

Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?

Options:

A.  

HTTPS

B.  

RPC

C.  

VPN

D.  

SIC

Discussion 0
Question # 66

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.  

This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.

B.  

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.

C.  

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.  

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

Discussion 0
Question # 67

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.  

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.  

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.  

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.  

It is not required L2TP traffic

Discussion 0
Question # 68

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

Options:

A.  

upgrade_import

B.  

cpconfig

C.  

fwm dbimport -p

D.  

cpinfo –recover

Discussion 0
Question # 69

The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects with different IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?

Options:

A.  

add host name ip-address

B.  

add hostname ip-address

C.  

set host name ip-address

D.  

set hostname ip-address

Discussion 0
Question # 70

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.  

fwd via cpm

B.  

fwm via fwd

C.  

cpm via cpd

D.  

fwd via cpd

Discussion 0
Question # 71

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.  

Stateful Mode

B.  

VPN Routing Mode

C.  

Wire Mode

D.  

Stateless Mode

Discussion 0
Question # 72

Which TCP-port does CPM process listen to?

Options:

A.  

18191

B.  

18190

C.  

8983

D.  

19009

Discussion 0
Question # 73

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Options:

A.  

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.  

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.  

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.  

fw ctl multik pq enable

Discussion 0
Question # 74

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.  

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.  

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.  

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.  

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Discussion 0
Question # 75

Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?

Options:

A.  

source port ranges

B.  

source ip

C.  

source port

D.  

same info from Packet Acceleration is used

Discussion 0
Question # 76

Your manager asked you to check the status of SecureXL, and its enabled templates and features. What command will you use to provide such information to manager?

Options:

A.  

fw accel stat

B.  

fwaccel stat

C.  

fw acces stats

D.  

fwaccel stats

Discussion 0
Question # 77

SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

Options:

A.  

Management Dashboard

B.  

Gateway

C.  

Personal User Storage

D.  

Behavior Risk Engine

Discussion 0
Question # 78

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

Options:

A.  

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.  

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.  

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.  

Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot

Discussion 0
Question # 79

What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

Options:

A.  

SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

B.  

SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

C.  

SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

D.  

API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

Discussion 0
Question # 80

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:

Options:

A.  

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001

B.  

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191

C.  

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.

D.  

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.

Discussion 0
Question # 81

Which statement is true regarding redundancy?

Options:

A.  

System Administrators know when their cluster has failed over and can also see why it failed over by using the cphaprob –f if command.

B.  

ClusterXL offers three different Load Sharing solutions: Unicast, Broadcast, and Multicast.

C.  

Machines in a ClusterXL High Availability configuration must be synchronized.

D.  

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia and available to all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized environments.

Discussion 0
Question # 82

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

Options:

A.  

cphaprob –a if

B.  

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.  

cphaconf debug data

D.  

cphaprob igmp

Discussion 0
Question # 83

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.  

Symmetric routing

B.  

Failovers

C.  

Asymmetric routing

D.  

Anti-Spoofing

Discussion 0
Question # 84

In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Options:

A.  

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.  

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.  

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.  

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

Discussion 0
Question # 85

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Options:

A.  

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.  

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.  

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.  

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

Discussion 0
Question # 86

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by SmartEvent Processes?

Options:

A.  

ELA and CPD

B.  

FWD and LEA

C.  

FWD and CPLOG

D.  

ELA and CPLOG

Discussion 0
Question # 87

Fill in the blank: The tool _____ generates a R81 Security Gateway configuration report.

Options:

A.  

infoCP

B.  

infoview

C.  

cpinfo

D.  

fw cpinfo

Discussion 0
Question # 88

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.  

cpinfo

B.  

migrate export

C.  

sysinfo

D.  

cpview

Discussion 0
Question # 89

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

Options:

A.  

logd

B.  

fwd

C.  

fwm

D.  

cpd

Discussion 0
Question # 90

fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?

Options:

A.  

fwd

B.  

cpwd

C.  

fwm

D.  

cpd

Discussion 0
Question # 91

You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

Options:

A.  

SmartEvent Client Info

B.  

SecuRemote

C.  

Check Point Protect

D.  

Check Point Capsule Cloud

Discussion 0
Question # 92

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.  

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.  

SmartConsole

C.  

SecureClient

D.  

Security Gateway

E.  

SmartEvent

Discussion 0
Question # 93

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

Options:

A.  

User data base corruption

B.  

LDAP conflicts

C.  

Traffic issues

D.  

Phase two key negotiations

Discussion 0
Question # 94

What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

Options:

A.  

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

B.  

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

C.  

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

D.  

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

Discussion 0
Question # 95

What is the difference between an event and a log?

Options:

A.  

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.  

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.  

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.  

Log and Events are synonyms

Discussion 0
Question # 96

On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.  

18210

B.  

18184

C.  

257

D.  

18191

Discussion 0
Question # 97

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

Options:

A.  

api stat

B.  

api status

C.  

show api_status

D.  

app_get_status

Discussion 0
Question # 98

Which CLI command will reset the IPS pattern matcher statistics?

Options:

A.  

ips reset pmstat

B.  

ips pstats reset

C.  

ips pmstats refresh

D.  

ips pmstats reset

Discussion 0
Question # 99

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Options:

A.  

R81 Management API-

B.  

Identity Awareness Web Services API

C.  

Open REST API

D.  

OPSEC SDK

Discussion 0
Question # 100

Where you can see and search records of action done by R81 SmartConsole administrators?

Options:

A.  

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.  

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.  

In SmartAuditLog View

D.  

In Smartlog, all logs

Discussion 0
Question # 101

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Options:

A.  

Accept

B.  

Drop

C.  

NAT

D.  

None

Discussion 0
Question # 102

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

Options:

A.  

IDA

B.  

RAD

C.  

PDP

D.  

VPN

Discussion 0
Question # 103

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.  

Application and Client Service

B.  

Network and Application

C.  

Network and Layers

D.  

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

Discussion 0
Question # 104

There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R81 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

Options:

A.  

Using Web Services

B.  

Using Mgmt_cli tool

C.  

Using CLISH

D.  

Using SmartConsole GUI console

E.  

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems

Discussion 0
Question # 105

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Options:

A.  

Inspect/Bypass

B.  

Inspect/Prevent

C.  

Prevent/Bypass

D.  

Detect/Bypass

Discussion 0
Question # 106

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

Options:

A.  

Big l

B.  

Little o

C.  

Little i

D.  

Big O

Discussion 0
Question # 107

Selecting an event displays its configurable properties in the Detail pane and a description of the event in the Description pane. Which is NOT an option to adjust or configure?

Options:

A.  

Severity

B.  

Automatic reactions

C.  

Policy

D.  

Threshold

Discussion 0
Question # 108

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

Options:

A.  

fw ctl sdstat

B.  

fw ctl affinity –l –a –r –v

C.  

fw ctl multik stat

D.  

cpinfo

Discussion 0
Question # 109

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Options:

A.  

Threat Emulation

B.  

Threat Simulator

C.  

Threat Extraction

D.  

Threat Cloud

Discussion 0
Question # 110

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

Options:

A.  

Route-based VPN

B.  

IPS

C.  

IPv6

D.  

Overlapping NAT

Discussion 0
Question # 111

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Options:

A.  

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.  

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.  

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.  

Pulls application monitoring status

Discussion 0
Question # 112

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

Options:

A.  

Standard Policies

B.  

Shared Policies

C.  

Inspection Policies

D.  

Unified Policies

Discussion 0
Question # 113

What destination versions are supported for a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?

Options:

A.  

R81.40 and later

B.  

R76 and later

C.  

R70 and Later

D.  

R81.20 and Later

Discussion 0
Question # 114

What could NOT be a reason for synchronization issues in a Management HA environment?

Options:

A.  

Accidentally, you have configured unique IP addresses per Management Server which invalidates the CA Certificate

B.  

There is a network connectivity failure between the servers

C.  

Servers are in Collision Mode. Two servers, both in active state cannot be synchronized either automatically or manually.

D.  

The products installed on the servers do not match: one device is a Standalone Server while the other is only a Security Management server

Discussion 0
Question # 115

What is NOT a Cluster Mode?

Options:

A.  

Load Sharing Unicast

B.  

Load Sharing Multicast

C.  

Active-Active

D.  

High Availability Multicast

Discussion 0
Question # 116

Which TCP port does the CPM process listen on?

Options:

A.  

18191

B.  

18190

C.  

8983

D.  

19009

Discussion 0
Question # 117

Bob has finished io setup provisioning a secondary security management server. Now he wants to check if the provisioning has been correct. Which of the following Check Point command can be used to check if the security management server has been installed as a primary or a secondary security management server?

Options:

A.  

cpprod_util MgmtlsPrimary

B.  

cpprod_util FwlsSecondary

C.  

cpprod_util MgmtlsSecondary

D.  

cpprod_util FwlsPrimary

Discussion 0
Question # 118

Which statement is false in respect of the SmartConsole after upgrading the management server to R81.20?

Options:

A.  

Yes. You can download the SmartConsole directly from the Download Center

B.  

As far as you use version R80.40, no upgrade is needed due to compatibility mode

C.  

Yes, using CPUSE you can make the installer available in the Web Portal of the Management Server

D.  

Yes, the SmartConsole Upgrade package can be installed using CPUSE

Discussion 0
Question # 119

What mechanism can ensure that the Security Gateway can communicate with the Management Server with ease in situations with overwhelmed network resources?

Options:

A.  

The corresponding feature is new to R81.20 and is called "Management Data Plane Separation"

B.  

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Dispatching"

C.  

There is a feature for ensuring stable connectivity to the management server and is done via Priority Queuing.

D.  

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Split"

Discussion 0
Question # 120

Which of the following Central Deployment is NOT a limitation in R81.20 SmartConsole?

Options:

A.  

Security Gateway Clusters in Load Sharing mode

B.  

Dedicated Log Server

C.  

Dedicated SmartEvent Server

D.  

Security Gateways/Clusters in ClusterXL HA new mode

Discussion 0
Question # 121

Which of the following Check Point commands is true to enable Multi-Version Cluster (MVC)?

Options:

A.  

Check Point Security Management HA (Secondary): set cluster member mvc on

B.  

Check Point Security Gateway Only: set cluster member mvc on

C.  

Check Point Security Management HA (Primary): set cluster member mvc on

D.  

Check Point Security Gateway Cluster Member: set cluster member mvc on

Discussion 0
Question # 122

Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

Options:

A.  

DASSERVICE

B.  

FWD

C.  

CPVIEWD

D.  

CPD

Discussion 0
Question # 123

In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

Options:

A.  

Publish changes

B.  

Save changes

C.  

Install policy

D.  

Install database

Discussion 0
Question # 124

D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule based and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.  

The connection is destined for a server within the network

B.  

The connection required a Security server

C.  

The packet is the second in an established TCP connection

D.  

The packets are not multicast

Discussion 0
Question # 125

Fill in the blanks: A _______ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a ________ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Options:

A.  

Formal; corporate

B.  

Local; formal

C.  

Local; central

D.  

Central; local

Discussion 0
Question # 126

Alice & Bob are going to deploy Management Data Plane Separation (MDPS) for all their Check Point Security Gateway(s)/Cluster(s). Which of the following statement is true?

Options:

A.  

Each network environment is dependent and includes interfaces, routes, sockets, and processes

B.  

Management Plane – To access, provision and monitor the Security Gateway

C.  

Data Plane – To access, provision and monitor the Security Gateway

D.  

Management Plane – for all other network traffic and processing

Discussion 0
Question # 127

Fill in the blank: __________ information is included in “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in “Log” tracking option?

Options:

A.  

Destination port

B.  

Data type

C.  

File attributes

D.  

Application

Discussion 0
Question # 128

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.  

Add rba user roles

B.  

Add rba user

C.  

Add user roles

D.  

Add user

Discussion 0
Question # 129

Where is the license for Check Point Mobile users installed?

Options:

A.  

The Primary Gateway

B.  

The Standby Gateway

C.  

The Endpoint Server

D.  

The Security Management Server

Discussion 0
Question # 130

How long may verification of one file take for Sandblast Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.  

up to 1 minutes

B.  

within seconds cleaned file will be provided

C.  

up to 5 minutes

D.  

up to 3 minutes

Discussion 0
Question # 131

Joey want to configure NTP on R81 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

Options:

A.  

https://

B.  

http:// :443

C.  

https:// :10000

D.  

https:// :4434

Discussion 0
Question # 132

When users connect to the Mobile Access portal they are unable to open File Shares.

Which log file would you want to examine?

Options:

A.  

cvpnd.elg

B.  

httpd.elg

C.  

vpnd.elg

D.  

fw.elg

Discussion 0
Question # 133

You have enabled “Full Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

Options:

A.  

Logging has disk space issues. Change logging storage options on the logging server or Security Management Server properties and install database.

B.  

Data Awareness is not enabled.

C.  

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

D.  

Logs are arriving from Pre-R81 gateways.

Discussion 0
Question # 134

If there are two administration logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available or other administrators? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Options:

A.  

Publish or discard the session.

B.  

Revert the session.

C.  

Save and install the Policy.

D.  

Delete older versions of database.

Discussion 0
Question # 135

When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.  

The state of connections using resources is maintained in a Security Server, so their connections cannot be synchronized.

B.  

Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized.

C.  

In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly working synchronization.

D.  

Client Authentication or Session Authentication connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member fails.

Discussion 0
Question # 136

Alice knows about the Check Point Management HA installation from Bob and needs to know which Check Point Security Management Server is currently capable of issuing and managing certificate. Alice uses the Check Point command "cpconfig'' to run the Check Point Security Management Server configuration tool on both Check Point Management HA instances "Primary & Secondary" Which configuration option does she need to look for:

Options:

A.  

Certificate's Fingerprint

B.  

Random Pool

C.  

CA Authority

D.  

Certificate Authority

Discussion 0
Question # 137

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

Options:

A.  

Standalone

B.  

Remote

C.  

Distributed

D.  

Bridge Mode

Discussion 0
Question # 138

Which Queue in the Priority Queue has the maximum priority?

Options:

A.  

High Priority

B.  

Control

C.  

Routing

D.  

Heavy Data Queue

Discussion 0
Question # 139

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Options:

A.  

Only when there is Multicast solution set up.

B.  

There is Load Sharing solution set up.

C.  

Only when there is Unicast solution set up.

D.  

There is High Availability solution set up.

Discussion 0
Question # 140

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or ______ .

Options:

A.  

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.  

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.  

On specific tunnels in the community

D.  

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Discussion 0
Question # 141

Mobile Access Gateway can be configured as a reverse proxy for Internal Web Applications Reverse proxy users browse to a URL that is resolved to the Security Gateway IP address. Which of the following Check Point command is true for enabling the Reverse Proxy:

Options:

A.  

ReverseCLIProxy

B.  

ReverseProxyCLI

C.  

ReverseProxy

D.  

ProxyReverseCLI

Discussion 0
Question # 142

What are the two ClusterXL Deployment options?

Options:

A.  

Distributed and Full High Availability

B.  

Broadcast and Multicast Mode

C.  

Distributed and Standalone

D.  

Unicast and Multicast Mode

Discussion 0
Question # 143

When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Options:

A.  

Weight

B.  

Authenticated timeout

C.  

Schedule

D.  

Rate

Discussion 0
Question # 144

Which statement is WRONG regarding the usage of the Central Deployment in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.  

You can install Hotfixes with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole

B.  

You can install Jumbo Hotfix accumulators with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole.

C.  

Only be installed Hotfixes can with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole

D.  

You can upgrade your cluster without user intervention with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole from R80.40 to R81.20.

Discussion 0
Question # 145

You had setup the VPN Community VPN-Stores'with 3 gateways. There are some issues with one remote gateway(1.1.1.1) and an your local gateway. What will be the best log filter to see only the IKE Phase 2 agreed networks for both gateways

Options:

A.  

action:"Key Install" AND 1.1.1.1 AND Main Mode

B.  

action:"Key Install- AND 1.1.1.1 ANDQuick Mode

C.  

Blade:"VPN" AND VPN-Stores AND Main Mode

D.  

Blade:"VPN" AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

Discussion 0
Question # 146

Bob is going to prepare the import of the exported R81.20 management database. Now he wants to verify that the installed tools on the new target security management machine are able to handle the R81.20 release. Which of the following Check Point command is true?

Options:

A.  

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R77.30

B.  

$CPDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R81.20

C.  

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R81.20

D.  

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_uninstalled_tools -v R81.20

Discussion 0
Question # 147

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.  

Capsule Docs

B.  

Capsule Cloud

C.  

Capsule Enterprise

D.  

Capsule Workspace

Discussion 0
Question # 148

John is using Management H

A.  

Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.  

secondary Smartcenter

B.  

active Smartenter

C.  

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.  

primary Smartcenter

Discussion 0
Question # 149

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.  

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.  

Proactively detects threats.

C.  

Delivers file with original content.

D.  

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

Discussion 0
Question # 150

What are the blades of Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.  

IPS, DLP, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

B.  

DLP, AntiVirus, QoS, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

C.  

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot

D.  

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

Discussion 0
Question # 151

: 156

VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?

Options:

A.  

The Firewall will drop the packets.

B.  

The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel.

C.  

The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces.

D.  

The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down.

Discussion 0
Question # 152

What is the purpose of extended master key extension/session hash?

Options:

A.  

UDP VOIP protocol extension

B.  

In case of TLS1.x it is a prevention of a Man-in-the-Middle attack/disclosure of the client-server communication

C.  

Special TCP handshaking extension

D.  

Supplement DLP data watermark

Discussion 0
Question # 153

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enabled which path is handling the traffic?

Options:

A.  

Slow Path

B.  

Medium Path

C.  

Fast Path

D.  

Accelerated Path

Discussion 0
Question # 154

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.  

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.  

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.  

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.  

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

Discussion 0
Question # 155

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

Options:

A.  

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.  

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.  

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.  

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

Discussion 0
Question # 156

With Mobile Access enabled, administrators select the web-based and native applications that can be accessed by remote users and define the actions that users can perform the applications. Mobile Access encrypts all traffic using:

Options:

A.  

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

B.  

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

C.  

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, no additional software is required.

D.  

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, no additional software is required.

Discussion 0
Question # 157

Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

Options:

A.  

fw tab -t

B.  

fw tab -s

C.  

fw tab -n

D.  

fw tab -k

Discussion 0
Question # 158

As an administrator, you may be required to add the company logo to reports. To do this, you would save the logo as a PNG file with the name ‘cover-company-logo.png’ and then copy that image file to which directory on the SmartEvent server?

Options:

A.  

SFWDIR/smartevent/conf

B.  

$RTDIR/smartevent/conf

C.  

$RTDIR/smartview/conf

D.  

$FWDIR/smartview/conf

Discussion 0
Question # 159

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Options:

A.  

fw ctl stat

B.  

clusterXL stat

C.  

clusterXL status

D.  

cphaprob stat

Discussion 0
Question # 160

Which of the following will NOT affect acceleration?

Options:

A.  

Connections destined to or originated from the Security gateway

B.  

A 5-tuple match

C.  

Multicast packets

D.  

Connections that have a Handler (ICMP, FTP, H.323, etc.)

Discussion 0
Question # 161

What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

Options:

A.  

Firewall logs

B.  

Configuration and database files

C.  

System message logs

D.  

OS and network statistics

Discussion 0
Question # 162

Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?

Options:

A.  

mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format txt

B.  

mgmt_cli add host name “Server_1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

C.  

mgmt_cli add object-host “Server_1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

D.  

mgmt._cli add object “Server-1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

Discussion 0
Question # 163

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

Options:

A.  

cphaprob –f register

B.  

cphaprob –d –s report

C.  

cpstat –f all

D.  

cphaprob –a list

Discussion 0
Question # 164

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.  

fwd

B.  

fwm

C.  

cpd

D.  

cpwd

Discussion 0
Question # 165

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Options:

A.  

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.  

OPSEC SDK

C.  

Mobile Access

D.  

Management

Discussion 0
Question # 166

Which GUI client is supported in R81?

Options:

A.  

SmartProvisioning

B.  

SmartView Tracker

C.  

SmartView Monitor

D.  

SmartLog

Discussion 0
Question # 167

NO: 180

What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

Options:

A.  

cpinfo -hf

B.  

cpinfo –y all

C.  

cpinfo –get hf

D.  

cpinfo installed_jumbo

Discussion 0
Question # 168

Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

Options:

A.  

Primary-backup

B.  

Source address based

C.  

Round robin

D.  

Load Sharing

Discussion 0
Question # 169

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

Options:

A.  

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.  

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.  

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.  

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

Discussion 0
Question # 170

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.  

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

B.  

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

C.  

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

D.  

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

Discussion 0
Question # 171

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

Options:

A.  

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.  

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.  

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.  

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

Discussion 0
Question # 172

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.  

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.  

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.  

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.  

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

Discussion 0
Question # 173

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.20 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

Options:

A.  

cphaprob stat

B.  

cphaprob –a if

C.  

cphaprob –l list

D.  

cphaprob all show stat

Discussion 0
Question # 174

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

Options:

A.  

Once a week

B.  

Once an hour

C.  

Twice per day

D.  

Once per day

Discussion 0
Question # 175

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

Options:

A.  

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.  

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.  

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.  

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

Discussion 0
Question # 176

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Options:

A.  

Threat Emulation

B.  

Mobile Access

C.  

Mail Transfer Agent

D.  

Threat Cloud

Discussion 0
Question # 177

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

Options:

A.  

IP

B.  

SIC

C.  

NAT

D.  

FQDN

Discussion 0
Question # 178

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

Options:

A.  

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.  

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.  

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.  

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

Discussion 0
Question # 179

Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Options:

A.  

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.  

mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.  

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.  

mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Discussion 0
Question # 180

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

Options:

A.  

Accept Template

B.  

Deny Template

C.  

Drop Template

D.  

NAT Template

Discussion 0
Question # 181

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

Options:

A.  

Includes the registry

B.  

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.  

Does not resolve network addresses

D.  

Output excludes connection table

Discussion 0
Question # 182

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.  

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.  

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.  

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.  

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

Discussion 0
Question # 183

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

Options:

A.  

For short connections like http service – delay sync for 2 seconds

B.  

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.  

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.  

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

Discussion 0
Question # 184

When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:

Options:

A.  

Threat Emulation

B.  

HTTPS

C.  

QOS

D.  

VoIP

Discussion 0
Question # 185

To add a file to the Threat Prevention Whitelist, what two items are needed?

Options:

A.  

File name and Gateway

B.  

Object Name and MD5 signature

C.  

MD5 signature and Gateway

D.  

IP address of Management Server and Gateway

Discussion 0
Question # 186

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.  

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode.

B.  

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MT

A.  

C.  

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario.

D.  

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance.

Discussion 0
Question # 187

SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

Options:

A.  

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

B.  

detect only

C.  

inline/prevent or detect

D.  

as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only

Discussion 0
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