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200-201 Practice Exam Questions and Answers

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)

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Total Questions : 311

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Question # 1

Why is HTTPS traffic difficult to screen?

Options:

A.  

HTTPS is used internally and screening traffic (or external parties is hard due to isolation.

B.  

The communication is encrypted and the data in transit is secured.

C.  

Digital certificates secure the session, and the data is sent at random intervals.

D.  

Traffic is tunneled to a specific destination and is inaccessible to others except for the receiver.

Discussion 0
Question # 2

How does certificate authority impact a security system?

Options:

A.  

It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

B.  

It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate

C.  

It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate

D.  

It validates client identity when communicating with the server

Discussion 0
Question # 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 3

What information is depicted?

Options:

A.  

IIS data

B.  

NetFlow data

C.  

network discovery event

D.  

IPS event data

Discussion 0
Question # 4

A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.  

CD data copy prepared in Windows

B.  

CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system

C.  

CD data copy prepared in Linux system

D.  

CD data copy prepared in Android-based system

Discussion 0
Question # 5

What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?

Options:

A.  

An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B.  

An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C.  

An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack; and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D.  

An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack; and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Discussion 0
Question # 6

Which evasion technique is a function of ransomware?

Options:

A.  

extended sleep calls

B.  

encryption

C.  

resource exhaustion

D.  

encoding

Discussion 0
Question # 7

What ate two categories of DDoS attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

split brain

B.  

scanning

C.  

phishing

D.  

reflected

E.  

direct

Discussion 0
Question # 8

When communicating via TLS, the client initiates the handshake to the server and the server responds back with its certificate for identification.

Which information is available on the server certificate?

Options:

A.  

server name, trusted subordinate CA, and private key

B.  

trusted subordinate CA, public key, and cipher suites

C.  

trusted CA name, cipher suites, and private key

D.  

server name, trusted CA, and public key

Discussion 0
Question # 9

Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports?

Options:

A.  

statistical data

B.  

session data

C.  

connectivity data

D.  

alert data

Discussion 0
Question # 10

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs.

Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.  

application whitelisting/blacklisting

B.  

network NGFW

C.  

host-based IDS

D.  

antivirus/antispyware software

Discussion 0
Question # 11

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

Options:

A.  

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag terminates spontaneous connections.

B.  

The ACK flag confirms the received segment, and the RST flag terminates the connection.

C.  

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag indicates that a packet needs to be resent

D.  

The ACK flag marks the connection as reliable, and the RST flag indicates the failure within TCP Handshake

Discussion 0
Question # 12

Question # 12

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?

Options:

A.  

info

B.  

tags

C.  

MIME

D.  

name

Discussion 0
Question # 13

In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric?

Options:

A.  

code signing enforcement

B.  

full assets scan

C.  

internet exposed devices

D.  

single factor authentication

Discussion 0
Question # 14

What is an advantage of symmetric over asymmetric encryption?

Options:

A.  

A key is generated on demand according to data type.

B.  

A one-time encryption key is generated for data transmission

C.  

It is suited for transmitting large amounts of data.

D.  

It is a faster encryption mechanism for sessions

Discussion 0
Question # 15

Which event is user interaction?

Options:

A.  

gaining root access

B.  

executing remote code

C.  

reading and writing file permission

D.  

opening a malicious file

Discussion 0
Question # 16

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 16

A company employee is connecting to mail google.com from an endpoint device. The website is loaded but with an error. What is occurring?

Options:

A.  

DNS hijacking attack

B.  

Endpoint local time is invalid.

C.  

Certificate is not in trusted roots.

D.  

man-m-the-middle attack

Discussion 0
Question # 17

A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders After further investigation, the analyst learns that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?

Options:

A.  

post-incident activity

B.  

detection and analysis

C.  

preparation

D.  

containment, eradication, and recovery

Discussion 0
Question # 18

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

Options:

A.  

detection and analysis

B.  

post-incident activity

C.  

preparation

D.  

containment, eradication, and recovery

Discussion 0
Question # 19

What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?

Options:

A.  

central key management server

B.  

web of trust

C.  

trusted certificate authorities

D.  

registration authority data

Discussion 0
Question # 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 20

In which Linux log file is this output found?

Options:

A.  

/var/log/authorization.log

B.  

/var/log/dmesg

C.  

var/log/var.log

D.  

/var/log/auth.log

Discussion 0
Question # 21

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

Options:

A.  

sandbox

B.  

application allow list

C.  

application block list

D.  

host-based firewall

Discussion 0
Question # 22

An offline audit log contains the source IP address of a session suspected to have exploited a vulnerability resulting in system compromise.

Which kind of evidence is this IP address?

Options:

A.  

best evidence

B.  

corroborative evidence

C.  

indirect evidence

D.  

forensic evidence

Discussion 0
Question # 23

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 23

What is shown in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.  

Timestamps are indicated with error.

B.  

The protocol is TCP.

C.  

The User-Agent is Mozilla/5.0.

D.  

The HTTP GET is encoded.

Discussion 0
Question # 24

One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems. What does CIA mean in this context?

Options:

A.  

confidentiality, identity, and authorization

B.  

confidentiality, integrity, and authorization

C.  

confidentiality, identity, and availability

D.  

confidentiality, integrity, and availability

Discussion 0
Question # 25

How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?

Options:

A.  

port scanning

B.  

man-in-the-middle

C.  

command injection

D.  

denial of service

Discussion 0
Question # 26

What does an attacker use to determine which network ports are listening on a potential target device?

Options:

A.  

man-in-the-middle

B.  

port scanning

C.  

SQL injection

D.  

ping sweep

Discussion 0
Question # 27

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 27

A workstation downloads a malicious docx file from the Internet and a copy is sent to FTDv. The FTDv sends the file hash to FMC and the tile event is recorded What would have occurred with stronger data visibility?

Options:

A.  

The traffic would have been monitored at any segment in the network.

B.  

Malicious traffic would have been blocked on multiple devices

C.  

An extra level of security would have been in place

D.  

Detailed information about the data in real time would have been provided

Discussion 0
Question # 28

Which of these describes SOC metrics in relation to security incidents?

Options:

A.  

time it takes to detect the incident

B.  

time it takes to assess the risks of the incident

C.  

probability of outage caused by the incident

D.  

probability of compromise and impact caused by the incident

Discussion 0
Question # 29

Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the description of that evidence on the right.

Question # 29

Options:

Discussion 0
Question # 30

Drag and drop the security concept from the left onto the example of that concept on the right.

Question # 30

Options:

Discussion 0
Question # 31

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

Options:

A.  

The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.

B.  

The total incident escalations per week.

C.  

The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.

D.  

The total incident escalations per month.

Discussion 0
Question # 32

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 32

Which field contains DNS header information if the payload is a query or a response?

Options:

A.  

Z

B.  

ID

C.  

TC

D.  

QR

Discussion 0
Question # 33

Refer to the exhibit.

Question # 33

Which type of log is displayed?

Options:

A.  

IDS

B.  

proxy

C.  

NetFlow

D.  

sys

Discussion 0
Question # 34

What is a difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.  

Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow

B.  

Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking

C.  

Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation

D.  

Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security

Discussion 0
Question # 35

Which step in the incident response process researches an attacking host through logs in a SIEM?

Options:

A.  

detection and analysis

B.  

preparation

C.  

eradication

D.  

containment

Discussion 0
Question # 36

Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

context

B.  

session

C.  

laptop

D.  

firewall logs

E.  

threat actor

Discussion 0
Question # 37

Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST SP 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

detection and analysis

B.  

post-incident activity

C.  

vulnerability scoring

D.  

vulnerability management

E.  

risk assessment

Discussion 0
Question # 38

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

Options:

A.  

examination

B.  

investigation

C.  

collection

D.  

reporting

Discussion 0
Question # 39

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.  

management and reporting

B.  

traffic filtering

C.  

adaptive AVC

D.  

metrics collection and exporting

E.  

application recognition

Discussion 0
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