4A0-100 Practice Exam Questions and Answers

A.  

The missing segment is retransmitted.

B.  

The TCP session is terminated.

C.  

The sender sends the next segment.

D.  

An ICMP destination unreachable message is sent.

A.  

IES

B.  

VPWS

C.  

VPLS

D.  

VPRN

A.  

Nothing. The two hosts can send data to each other at any time.

B.  

The two hosts must negotiate a path MTU to be used for the data exchange.

C.  

The two hosts must perform a 3-way handshake before transmitting data.

D.  

The two hosts must exchange encryption keys before transmitting data.

A.  

IP forwarding

B.  

IP decapsulation

C.  

IP encapsulation

D.  

IP tunneling

A.  

The ACK tells the host A that host B wishes to establish a session.

B.  

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the segment that was just received by host

B.  

C.  

The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the next segment that host B expects to see.

D.  

The ACK is flow control from host B and tells host A to reduce its transmission rate.

A.  

UDP has less overhead because it is only used for transmission of small amounts of data.

B.  

UDP has less overhead then TCP because there is no checksum field in UDP.

C.  

UDP overhead is the same as TCP because it uses the same fields in the header.

D.  

UDP has less overhead because there is no requirement for acknowledgment or retransmission.

A.  

A VPLS emulates a virtual switch or bridge.

B.  

The VPLS performs MAC learning on MAC addresses seen from SAPs and SDPs.

C.  

When a VPLS receives a frame with an unknown MAC destination, the frame will be dropped.

D.  

MAC addresses are maintained in a MAC address forwarding database (FDB).

A.  

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2

B.  

0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.  

10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.  

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

A.  

LDP monitors the available bandwidth on all links and signals the LSP based on this information.

B.  

LDP uses the shortest hop-count between two endpoints for the LSP.

C.  

LDP must be configured hop-by-hop by the service provider.

D.  

LDP follows the path chosen by the IGP.

A.  

4 subnets, 64 hosts

B.  

64 subnets, 4 hosts

C.  

4 subnets, 62 hosts

D.  

64 subnets, 2 hosts

E.  

6 subnets, 30 hosts

A.  

10.2.3.2

B.  

10.1.1.1

C.  

10.2.3.1

D.  

10.1.1.2

A.  

A VPLS operates as if 2 sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.  

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.  

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single router.

D.  

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point routed connections.

A.  

RTM selects the best route from among multiple routing protocols.

B.  

RTM selects the best route using the metric as criteria

C.  

RTM sends its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.

D.  

RTM installs its best route in the routing table.

A.  

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. Customers must change their IP address assignment.

B.  

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.

C.  

A VPRN ignores IP addressing information and uses MAC addressing instead, which are always unique.

D.  

A VPRN translates customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

A.  

CE always connects to a PE router.

B.  

CE always connects to a P router.

C.  

CE always connects to another CE device.

D.  

The CE does not connect to the service provider network.

A.  

A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. It does not generate or amplify any signals.

B.  

A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.

C.  

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.  

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

A.  

True

B.  

False

A.  

Real-time audio application, such as VoIP

B.  

Web browser

C.  

Email application

D.  

Telnet

A.  

It forwards the data to the switch fabric.

B.  

It discards excess data packets.

C.  

It converts the incoming data to an internal format.

D.  

It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.

A.  

It records the destination MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

B.  

It records the source MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

C.  

It floods the frame out of all its interfaces except the interface on which the frame arrived.

D.  

It transmits the frame out of the appropriate interface.

A.  

INWG

B.  

ALOHANET

C.  

IETF

D.  

NSFNET

A.  

A large corporation.

B.  

An ISP.

C.  

A home based business.

D.  

A content provider.

A.  

ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).

B.  

The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks, making an international network of networks.

C.  

ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on the University of Hawaii campus.

D.  

ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.

A.  

9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

B.  

3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

C.  

3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains.

D.  

1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains.

A.  

Same host numbers.

B.  

Same IP address.

C.  

First two bits of the IP address are set to 01.

D.  

Same network prefix.

A.  

When the router first receives a frame from a LAN.

B.  

After the forwarding table is checked.

C.  

After the IP datagram is extracted from the L2 frame.

D.  

Immediately before the IP packet is encapsulated for transmission.

A.  

If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSP

F.  

B.  

If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF by dividing the link bandwidth by 2.

C.  

The LAG will be changed to an operational state of 'down'.

D.  

The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric.

A.  

Layer 1

B.  

Layer 2

C.  

Layer 3

D.  

Layer 4

A.  

Discover, offer, request, acknowledgement.

B.  

Request, offer, discover, acknowledgement.

C.  

Discover, request, offer, acknowledgement.

D.  

Request, acknowledgement, discover, offer.

A.  

VLAN tag.

B.  

IP Header.

C.  

FCS.

D.  

Priority Value.

A.  

A string of 1s

B.  

A string of 0s

C.  

A string of alternating 10s

D.  

There is no specific bit pattern to identify the network address.

A.  

A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.

B.  

A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its other ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.

C.  

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.  

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

A.  

It indicates the preferred egress interface.

B.  

It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by the same protocol.

C.  

It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by different routing protocols.

D.  

It is used to differentiate local routes from remote routes.

A.  

Ethernet 802.3 can only be used on point-to-point links, while Ethernet II can be used on broadcast networks.

B.  

In Ethernet II the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type indicator. In Ethernet 802.3 these two bytes indicate the length of the frame.

C.  

In Ethernet 802.3, the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type indicator. In Ethernet II these two bytes indicate the length of the frame.

D.  

Ethernet II and Ethernet 802.3 are two different names for the same protocol

A.  

IP routing.

B.  

IP protocol.

C.  

IP encapsulation.

D.  

IP tunneling.

A.  

17.23.119.63

B.  

87.99.12.159

C.  

95.11.22.93

D.  

192.11.25.87

A.  

1/1/1

B.  

1/1/2

C.  

1/1/3

D.  

1/1/4

A.  

Provides a connectionless delivery service.

B.  

Provides a connection oriented delivery service

C.  

Provides an unreliable transmission service,

D.  

Provides a reliable transmission service.

A.  

eBGP peering sessions with routers R1, R3 and R4

B.  

iBGP peering sessions with routers R1 and R5

C.  

An eBGP peering session with router R1, and iBGP peering sessions with routers R3 and R4

D.  

An iBGP peering session with router R1, and an eBGP peering session with router R4

A.  

It is used to maintain adjacency between neighbors.

B.  

It is used to request link state updates from neighbors.

C.  

It is used to deliver link state updates to neighbors.

D.  

It is used to confirm delivery of updates between neighbors.

A.  

SFP -> IOM -> MDA -> SF/CPM

B.  

SFP-> MDA-> IOM -> SF/CPM

C.  

SFP -> SF/CPM -> MDA -> IOM

D.  

IOM -> MDA -> SF/CPM -> SFP

A.  

To find the best path to the destination network and install it in the routing table - based on the metrics of the routing protocol.

B.  

To provide a CLI interface that allows the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on the router.

C.  

To choose the route with the lowest preference and install it in the routing table - based on the routing protocol preference values.

D.  

To provide a CLI interface that allows the network operator to install static routes in the routing table.

A.  

6

B.  

14

C.  

30

D.  

62

A.  

It reduces the number of routes advertised by the router.

B.  

It allows a single route table entry to represent multiple subnetworks

C.  

It can reduce the size of the routing table in neighboring routers.

D.  

It advertises more specific routes for routing advertisement stability.

A.  

Configuration changes are stored in a candidate configuration datastore.

B.  

A router uses the running configuration datastore for its operation.

C.  

Configuration changes are activated by committing the candidate configuration.

D.  

A running configuration datastore consists of multiple candidate configuration datastores.

A.  

It is used when forwarding control plane data to the local CPM.

B.  

It is used when there is no other known route for a given packet’s destination.

C.  

It matches a specific /32 host address with the least cost to the destination.

D.  

It is used when forwarding multicast and broadcast packets.

A.  

172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.1

B.  

172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.2

C.  

172.16.9.0.24 next-hop 10.10 10 3

D.  

0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 172.16.9.1

A.  

Provides a connectionless data transmission service.

B.  

Provides physical interconnection of network devices.

C.  

Provides reliable transfers of data.

D.  

Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

A.  

Router R1 pushes labels for both LSP A and LSP

B.  

B.  

Router R4 pushes labels for both LSP A and LSP

B.  

C.  

Router R1 pushes labels for LSP A, while router R4 pushes labels for LSP

B.  

D.  

Router R4 pushes labels for LSP A, while router R1 pushes labels for LSP

B.  

A.  

Routers periodically send a copy of their table to their neighbors.

B.  

Routers send triggered updates to the entire network.

C.  

Routers know the entire network topology.

D.  

Routers use Shortest Path First algorithm to calculate the optimum paths.

A.  

100.1.1.0/25

B.  

100.1.1.0/26

C.  

100.1.1.0/27

D.  

100.1.1.0/28

A.  

There must be multiple ports assigned to the LA

G.  

B.  

All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same speed and duplex settings.

C.  

Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LA

G.  

D.  

The duplex setting on all the ports must be forced to half.

E.  

Auto-negotiation must be set to limited or disabled on at least one member port.