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Accredited Financial Examiner

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Question # 1

For reinsurance assumed, the concepts analogous to attachment points and limits are referred to as

Options:

A.  

Severity Levels

B.  

Frequency Levels

C.  

Policy levels

D.  

Retention levels

Discussion 0
Question # 2

The reason behind, when an insurance entity may request permission from the domiciliary state regulatory authority to use a specific accounting practice in the preparation of its statutory financial statements, may include:

Options:

A.  

the entity wishes to depart from Statutory Accounting Practices (SAP)

B.  

the prescribes SAP address the accounting for transaction

C.  

Both A & B

D.  

Neither A nor B

Discussion 0
Question # 3

The SEC rules clarify that management’s assessment and report is limited to internal control over financial reporting.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Question # 4

The securities repurchased have the same stated interest rate as, and maturities similar to, the securities sold and are generally priced to result in substantially the same yield is known as:

Options:

A.  

Yield-maintenance agreements

B.  

Variable-coupon agreements

C.  

Fixed-coupon agreement

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Question # 5

Spreading of risks among insurance entities is called:

Options:

A.  

Reinsurance

B.  

Syndication

C.  

Consortium act

D.  

Risk Diffusion

Discussion 0
Question # 6

Insurance entities establish

claims of the member companies.

Options:

A.  

Company competency

B.  

Claim opportunities

C.  

Corrective strategies

D.  

Adjustment bureaus

Discussion 0
Question # 7

_______ is contractual right of recovery that entitles the insurer to any proceeds from the disposal of damaged property for which the claim has been made.

Options:

A.  

Claim adjustment

B.  

Claim recovery

C.  

Subrogation

D.  

Salvage

Discussion 0
Question # 8

Admitted assets are those specifically prescribed by the NAIC Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual or prescribed or permitted by the various jurisdictions. An admitted asset is defined as having probable future economic benefits. It also has three essential characteristics. Which one of the following is out of those characteristics?

Options:

A.  

It embodies a probable future benefit which contributes to cash flow

B.  

A particular entity can obtain this benefit

C.  

The transaction giving rise to entity’s right to control the benefit has already occurred

D.  

All of these

Discussion 0
Question # 9

Revenue risk is defined as:

Options:

A.  

the general administrative costs of insurers include components that do not necessarily vary with the level of the equity markets

B.  

the general administrative costs of investors include components that must necessarily vary with the level of the equity markets

C.  

the particular administrative costs of insurers include components that must necessarily vary with the level of the equity markets

D.  

the general administrative costs of investors include components that do not vary with the level of the equity markets

Discussion 0
Question # 10

What usually features a fixed premium that acts to levelize the policyholder’s outlay over the lifetime of the policy?

Options:

A.  

Whole life insurance

B.  

Permanent life insurance

C.  

Fiscally examined insurance

D.  

Life time insurance

Discussion 0
Question # 11

To realize the effect on the “bottom line,” or the net gain from operations, from various transactions, one must consider the amount of any liabilities that are released because of the transaction. Assume a death claim entry as follows:

Death proceeds-ordinary $10,000

Dividends on deposit disbursed 1,000

Cash $11,000

On first appearance, one might think that this will cause the net gain from operations to be $11,000 lower. However, if the policy has a reserve of $3,000, the effect on the net gain is only , because the reserve liability of $3,000 and the dividend liability of $1,000 will no longer be shown on the balance sheet

Options:

A.  

$7,000

B.  

$10,000

C.  

$8,000

D.  

$9,000

Discussion 0
Question # 12

When policy periods expire, the premiums written are earned and are recognized as:

Options:

A.  

Liabilities

B.  

Expenses

C.  

Revenues

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Question # 13

Adjusting and Others (AO) reserves are often provided for by using the calendar year paid-to-paid method rather than the accident year paid-to-paid method used for Inflation in Defense & Cost Containment (DCC) reserves.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Question # 14

Inflation in Defense & Cost Containment (DCC) is evaluated separately and is estimated to occur at the same rate as the rate of inflation in the losses.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Question # 15

Primary coverage involves policies written between an insurer and a customer directly.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Question # 16

Immunization theory says that:

Options:

A.  

duration matching requires rebalancing the asset portfolio, but the theoretically correct answer is to rebalance continuously.

B.  

Investment matching requires rebalancing the liabilities portfolio, but the theoretically correct answer is to rebalance annually.

C.  

Performance matching requires rebalancing the expense portfolio, but the theoretically correct answer is to rebalance continuously as and when needed only.

D.  

Balance matching requires rebalancing the revenues portfolio, but the theoretically correct answer is to rebalance continuously.

Discussion 0
Question # 17

For purposes of establishing an appropriate financial statement reserve, the most important factors to consider are:

Options:

A.  

the historical adequacy

B.  

consistency in the reserving approach

C.  

availability of statistical analysis of reserves

D.  

All of the above

Discussion 0
Question # 18

A Company’s investments are admitted assets properly valued which support the reserves and liabilities, including required capital and surplus. Many jurisdictions permit companies to make some investments that do not meet all of the strict regulatory requirements. These additional investments are often referred to as basket assets. Which of the following is/are true for Basket assets?

Options:

A.  

They have been made out of a company’s free surplus

B.  

Mortgage loans are first liens on the property backing them. Second or third-lien mortgages typically qualify as “basket” loans

C.  

A particular entity can obtain this benefit

D.  

They record investment and number of mortgages on which interest has been reduced, and the percent the interest was reduced

Discussion 0
Question # 19

What is the second-order measure of the interest rate sensitivity of an instrument and the sensitivity of duration to changes in interest rates?

Options:

A.  

Complexity

B.  

Convexity

C.  

Time compliance

D.  

Performance measure

Discussion 0
Question # 20

A substantial investment is defined as any investment comprising more than 15 percent of an enterprise’s voting shares or greater than 35 percent of its equity.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Question # 21

An annuity contract provides:

Options:

A.  

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a minimum guaranteed amount for those annuities not having life contingencies

B.  

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a minimum guaranteed amount for those annuities involving life contingencies

C.  

Either immediately or at some future date, perpetual income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain guaranteed number of payments or with a maximum guaranteed amount for those annuities involving life contingencies

D.  

Either immediately or at some future date, periodic income payments to one or more persons, perhaps with a certain small number of payments

Discussion 0
Question # 22

Which of the following is Correct?

Options:

A.  

the financial position of an entity with a 2-to-1 reserve-to-surplus ratio is less affected by variability in its loss reserves than is an entity operating at 4-to-1 ratio.

B.  

the financial position of an entity with a 2-to-1 reserve-to-surplus ratio is more affected by variability in its loss reserves than is an entity operating at 4-to-1 ratio.

C.  

the financial position of an entity with a 4-to-1 reserve-to-surplus ratio is less affected by variability in its loss reserves than is an entity operating at 2-to-1 ratio.

D.  

the financial position of an entity with a 4-to-1 reserve-to-surplus ratio is more affected by variability in its loss reserves than is an entity operating at 2-to-1 ratio.

Discussion 0
Question # 23

Risk retention group is:

Options:

A.  

A public entity formed by the members of the public pool primarily to provide business risk competency to the members.

B.  

A business entity formed by the members of the private pool primarily to provide commercial asset insurance to the members.

C.  

An insurance entity formed by the members of the private pool primarily to provide commercial liability insurance to the members.

D.  

An insurance entity formed by the members of the public pool primarily to provide commercial expense insurance to the members.

Discussion 0
Question # 24

What allows an entity to eliminate the reserve that was recorded for the claim, even if it exceeded the amount paid for the settlement?

Options:

A.  

ethical act

B.  

controlled procedure

C.  

structured settlement

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Question # 25

The two major asset classes in which life insurers invest are:

Options:

A.  

annuities and bonds

B.  

mortgages and annuities

C.  

bonds and investments

D.  

bonds and mortgages

Discussion 0
Question # 26

Interest rates are a key element of any option pricing exercise because cash flows are discounted at interest.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Question # 27

The potential for loss resulting from changes in market interest rates are known as:

Options:

A.  

Interest rate risk

B.  

Interest rate loss

C.  

Change rate risk

D.  

Change rate loss

Discussion 0
Question # 28

A premium deficiency relating to which insurance contracts indicate a probable loss on premiums yet to be earned.

Options:

A.  

long duration

B.  

premium policy

C.  

short duration

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Question # 29

The maturity of which agreement is fixed by the contract and depends on the needs of the borrower and the willingness of the lender?

Options:

A.  

Fixed agreement

B.  

Standard agreement

C.  

Short-term agreement

D.  

Repurchase agreement

Discussion 0
Question # 30

The operating ratio is the combined ratio less than the ratio of investment income, to earned premiums.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Question # 31

These are the loans in which:

Arrangement is usually called commitment When the structure is completed and put in service, the loan is paid off from the proceeds of the long term financing, whatever its source Proper controls would require the lender to obtain documentation for the disbursed portion of the construction loan and be assured that the cost of the structure to date is equivalent to the disbursed portion of the construction loan. What are these?

Options:

A.  

Undeveloped Land Loans

B.  

Construction Loans

C.  

Development Loans

D.  

Residential Loans

Discussion 0
Question # 32

The magnitude of the variable annuity benefits provided by a deferred annuity depends on the size of the account value at the end of the accumulation phase.

Options:

A.  

True

B.  

False

Discussion 0
Question # 33

From what the most direct value-based requirements arise which are present in account value accumulation products?

Options:

A.  

profit margins

B.  

policy holding rates

C.  

implicit interest rates

D.  

withdrawal provisions

Discussion 0
Question # 34

Which are components of an enterprise about which separate financial information is available that is evaluated regularly by the chief operating decision maker in deciding how to allocate resources and in assessing performance?

Options:

A.  

Service acts

B.  

Performance segments

C.  

Control segments

D.  

Operating segments

Discussion 0
Question # 35

Short-term portfolios are:

Options:

A.  

Portfolios consisting of liabilities with maturities of one year to meet dollar needs.

B.  

Portfolios consisting of combined revenues of less than one year to meet liquidity needs.

C.  

Portfolios consisting of assets with maturities of less than one year to meet liquidity needs.

D.  

Portfolios consisting of expenses with maturities of less than or equal to one year to meet dollar needs.

Discussion 0
Question # 36

What is the purpose of consolidated financial statements?

Options:

A.  

These statements are intended to reflect the financial position and results of operations of an economic entity rather than a legal entity.

B.  

These statements are intended to ignore the financial position and results of operations of an economic entity rather than an unofficial entity.

C.  

These statements are intended to reflect the financial position and results of operations of a credited entity rather than a supplemental entity.

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Question # 37

For immediate annuities, this is the ______________, defined by the sequence of periodic annuity benefit payments the policyholder is promised.

Options:

A.  

maximum credited rate

B.  

minimum credited rate

C.  

implicit interest rate

D.  

explicit interest rate

Discussion 0
Question # 38

A stock life insurance company writing both participating and nonparticipating business must follow special accounting procedures under the laws of certain jurisdictions. The purpose of these special accounting procedures is to provide for:

Options:

A.  

A separation of accounting, so that profits applicable to participating and nonparticipating business can be appropriately determined

B.  

This is a critical process, since profits from participating business are regulated as to their distribution among participating policyholders and the company’s stockholders

C.  

Some jurisdictions require the filing of several of the statutory statement exhibits in three forms, one for the company as a whole

D.  

Any of these

Discussion 0
Question # 39

Principal objectives of state statutes are: to investigate and settle some or all of the

Options:

A.  

restrict investments of insurance entities

B.  

prescribe methods of admitted asset recovery

C.  

acquisition of risk-based capitals

D.  

Both B & C

Discussion 0
Question # 40

Which of the following is NOT the category of Life and health insurers in Canada?

Options:

A.  

Canadian Companies

B.  

Fraternal Benefit Societies

C.  

Reassurance Companies

D.  

Provincially Licensed Companies

Discussion 0
Question # 41

An attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of audit evidence is called:

Options:

A.  

Operational skepticism

B.  

Audit skepticism

C.  

Professional skepticism

D.  

None of the above

Discussion 0
Question # 42

The financial statements of which accounts maintained by insurance company that must be presented separately from the insurance company’s general account business?

Options:

A.  

Business

B.  

Temporal

C.  

Principal

D.  

Segregated

Discussion 0
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